Being a survey on Perso

[LIB_IMC at centum.utulsa.edu]

>>My personal preference is the execution of Charles, as the solid cut off 
>>date for the end of the "Middle Ages"...
>When was this? And why do you consider it as the appropriate cutoff date?

For the Middle Ages?  (or rather for the Middle Ages and Rennaissance).
Because the regicide and the populist revisions in the goverment, many
of which survived the restoration) are a clear indication that
the "Age of Kings" was actually over.  The fact that the English Monarchy
has lingered on this long is only an indication of the comfort to be
found in an illusion of the past.

For the SCA?  I don't propose it as that.

Diarmuit