SC - re: pre-1500 cookery

[david friedman]

At 12:19 PM -0800 12/16/97, kat wrote:


>	I know I am only a novice at this whole thing; but it seems to me
>that unless we want to dip into middle-Eastern or Roman (Apician) food,
>which *is* truly wonderful once in a while, that we are pretty much stuck
>with  the fifteenth century and beyond.
>
>	Or am I missing something, and will I be horribly embarassed when
>(tactfully) corrected  <g>?

You are missing the 14th century--Curye on Englysche, Le Menagier,
Taillevent, etc. And the very end of the 13th c. (Anglo-Norman).

Also, a small nit--Muslim Spain is Islamic, but not middle-eastern.

On the more general issue, however, lack of sources does not answer the
question. The real culinary division is between medieval and renaissance
(what I like to call" Nouvelle Cuisine"), with the latter starting in the
16th c. There are lots of sources covering the 14th and 15th c., and they
are pretty readily available.

David/Cariadoc
http://www.best.com/~ddfr/


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