SC - barley

[Philippa Alderton]

In a message dated 12/13/98 1:04:11 AM US Mountain Standard Time,
stefan at texas.net writes:

> 
>  According to Waverly Root in "Food", most definitely. Among some of what
>  he says:
>  
>  "Barley was the chief grain from which the Hebrews made bread".
>  
>  "Barley was the chief grain of the Greeks in the most distant times of
>  which we have knowledge, and was apparently endowed with a religious
>  significance."
>  
>  "Barley was the chief bread grain of continental Europe until the
>  sixteenth century, as important in the European economy as is rice
>  in many Asian countries today. It was first brought to America in
>  1543 by the second Spanish governor of Colombia."
>  
>  "Barley lost much of its importance for breadmaking when leavened
>  bread became common, for its low gluten content makes it refractory
>  to the action of yeast."
>  

Hmmmmmm..........
But, if leavened bread was uncommon, why was it unusual for the bread to be
unleavened in Biblical times?  Why the Jewish proscription against leavened
bread for certain religious celebrations?
What is the consensus of the list as to the definition of leavened?  Does
Waverly mean any rising agent?  Or does he mean artificially induced carbon
dioxide by means of chemical additives, such as baking powder?  Or does he
mean simply the addition of salt?  From the context, I would say he means any
rising agent, as do the Jews in their dietary restrictions.  But, if he means
the use of yeast in breadmaking, why would the world suddenly stop using
barley to make bread in late period after thousands of years of using yeast? 

Mordonna
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