SC - creations and creativity

Mary Morman memorman at oldcolo.com
Mon Jun 15 12:14:01 PDT 1998


<snip>>I would think that a cook in the middle ages having not had his regular
>food shipment arrive, or he ran out of such-&-such spice, would be
>improvising all over the place. And as long as the result is delicious
>and does not poison the lord of the house then what does it matter if the
>recipe was not followed exactly?
<snip>

Hello!  Of course the medieval cook improvised, and he expected other
readers of the cookbook to improvise too. We have proof of this in recipes
that say 'use such-and-such, or if you don't have any, use what you think
best'.

 But  your original question was "If I have period ingredients and mix them
 in the restrictions of the cooking styles of period, but do not base it
 on any period recipe, is it period?".  The short answer to that question
is 'maybe, but I can't prove it'.

Yours in haste,


Cindy Renfrow/Sincgiefu
renfrow at skylands.net
Author & Publisher of "Take a Thousand Eggs or More, A Collection of 15th
Century Recipes" and "A Sip Through Time, A Collection of Old Brewing
Recipes"
http://www.alcasoft.com/renfrow/


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