SC - period references

[david friedman]

At 12:51 AM -0500 3/28/98, LrdRas wrote:
>In a message dated 3/28/98 12:41:28 AM Eastern Standard Time, ddfr at best.com
>writes:
>
><<  I have been thinking, ever
> since I came across references to salted lemons in modern Middle Eastern
> cooking, that that was what was meant- >>
>
>Saying Modern Middle Eastern cokking is accurate to a degree...but
>remember.....the Medieval period in the mid-east did not end until the 1790's
>C.E. so reference to it would not be any more out of line than referencing a
>post-Ren recipe from Digby when trying to justify an interpretation of a  pre-
>Ren recipe....

I don't think I agree. The relevant question is when the cooking changed,
which I don't know. Digby would be a poor source for pre-1500 English
cooking but probably not bad for 16th c., since the major changes (other
than the introduction of New World foods) seem to have happened between
1500 and 1600. In the case of Islamic food, I know that modern Islamic food
routinely uses New World ingredients and doesn't use murri but I don't know
when that started happening or what other changes occurred when. Do you? I
assume that when you refer to the Medieval period you are talking politics,
not cooking--is that assumption wrong?

David Friedman
Professor of Law
Santa Clara University
ddfr at best.com
http://www.best.com/~ddfr/


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