SC - Is Arrowroot Period?

[Philip & Susan Troy]

As far as I understand common SCA usage of the term, "period" refers to those
events, foods, people, customs, etc, etc, etc found in _Western Europe from
(roughly) 600 CE to 1600 CE.  It is also commonly expanded to include cultures
with which/from which said western europeans had significant contact within that
time frame (i.e., the Middle East, and Eastern Europe).  Despite the extreme
temptation to include the New World and it's products and peoples (I'm probably
as addicted to chocolate, potatoes, and chili peppers out there as anyone <g>),
these products and peoples are not generally considered "period," as far as I'm
concerned, because they have little bearing on most of  our primary "area" of
interest.
Forgive me if I'm babbling...it feels _really_ early here, with the time change
yesterday...*sigh*...back to my cup of New World coffee....
- --Maire

Hank wrote:

> If I may be so bold as to pose this question a little differently, why is
> arrowroot not period even if its source is the new world.  Trading with the
> "new world" dates to as early as 400 - 500 AD (Irish) 1065 (Norse) and 1500
> (Spanish) all of which are period.  We know that the Norse traded European
> foods to the natives, it made them sick! So why not the reverse?  I am a
> "new cook" but if we really mean by "period" European, then we should say
> so.