[Sca-cooks] ...thoughts on period-style food?

jenne at fiedlerfamily.net jenne at fiedlerfamily.net
Mon Jan 7 09:57:36 PST 2002


> Where they were very different is that they used
> spices and herbs we tend to catagorize as "sweet" in
> savory dishes, and "savory" in sweet dishes. Much of
> this had to do with humoral theory, but I have no
> doubt much had to do with simple availability as well.
> Considering the cost of such items we use without
> thinking about, such as salt, sugar, and basic black
> pepper, they would use generally less of these things
> than we would.

I'm sorry, I would like to see any proof of these allegations about the
use of black pepper and salt. From buying records, it looks as if people
used more black pepper than we do. It's certainly true that our prepared
foods are oversalted. However, it's a gross generalization to say that we
salt food made from fresh ingredients more than medieval people did,
simply because at many events and feasts, people LEAVE OUT the salt called
for or implied in the recipe to suit modern medical diets! Not to mention
the fact that foods prepared from fresh by modern people don't use
anywhere near the amount of salt that our pre-prepared foods do.

> reflecting the fact that folk above the salt were
> grand enough to be given the luxury of extra salt if
> they wanted it- it was too expensive to be given out
> to mere servants, other than what might be already in
> their food.

Documentation for this statement? I have never heard that salt was not
available. Certainly in one's own home salt would be available, as salt
was purchased by middle class people, such as priests and others.

(The solid data points I have on spice purchasing come from Anne Wilson
Food and Drink in Britain but I'd be happy to dig up more.)

-- Jadwiga Zajaczkowa
jenne at fiedlerfamily.net OR jenne at tulgey.browser.net OR jahb at lehigh.edu
"Are you finished? If you're finished, you'll have to put down the spoon."




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