[Sca-cooks] Zakuskas

[grizly]

-----Original Message-----
 Also, you folks with European personas for whom the Middle Ages ended
before 1630's Cavalier (If Digby can be used for documentation for brewers,
then the cutoff is not firmly set at 1600 IMO), must understand that the
Middle Ages did not end in Russia until 1700. That was when Peotr the Great
made his reforms. He brought in French cooks which mortally changed the
cuisine of the nobility, and declared that only French fashions could be
worn at court. <<<MUCH SNIPPED>>>

~Aislinn Columba of Carlisle~
aka Nadezhda Petrova Stoianova > > > > >


I am a bit ignorant of much Eastern European development around the 1600 to
1800 era.   am asking in the hope of gaining further knowledge.  Did
technology, science, trade and transportaion lag as far behind fashion and
social reform?  Some things that I see as indicators to me of significant
cookery/cuisine change include additions of new world foodstuffs, change in
the construction and techniques of food preparations, and access to
information and knowledge from already advanced cultures.  I certainly can
understand that the choke-hold of info and literature can lag a
nation/culture behind others parts of European development.  I can also see
that the nobility class that we focus on (in general) has greater resource
pool and greater access to "stuff".  If new foods are coming in and making
impact on cuisine, the rennaisance techniques and dishes are sneaking in,
and/or ccoking technology is appearing, then we may have to consider that
the culture has moved into Early Modern era ahead of the rest of the
culture.

Lots of recipes in Late 1500's don't really resemble their 1300-400's
antecedents due to availability or greater ubiquity of such things as
processed sugar and new world foodstuffs, for example.

Is there indication that the foodways lagged as far behind as the
socio-political atmposphere?



niccolo difrancesco