christianetrue at earthlink.net
Wed Jan 17 10:50:52 PST 2007
Does anyone know of any scholarly theories why this ubiquitous flavoring in medieval Arabic cooking virtually disappeared by the 15th century?
Since Charles Perry abandoned the carcinogenicity theory, has anything come officially in its place?
Could severe famines have anything to do with it? (With grain shortages, one would imagine that making murri would fall off the list of priorities of what to do with the barley). Or are there other reasons?
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