carlton_bach at yahoo.de
Sat Aug 1 14:27:47 PDT 2009
--- Terry Decker <t.d.decker at att.net> schrieb am Sa, 1.8.2009:
> My point is, if the Germanic origin of tapa is correct,
> then the linguistic transfer is most likely during the
> Spanish Hapsburg control of the Holy Roman Empire prior to
> the War of the Spanish Succession. Words tend to be
> used verbally before the appear in print and since we can
> only determine usage based on written record, the word
> coming into use in the 18th Century does not necessarily
> negate my point. It would be interesting to know when
> the the first known use occurred and if the etymology of
> Spanish supports the German origin of tapa. I have no
> expectation of proving the point one way or the other.
My problem with this is that I can't think of any modern German word that would lend itsaelf as a source by any stretch of the imagination. Wouldn#t it be more probable that 'tapa' is an early loan word (Visigothic, perhaps) that shapes a root with 'top'? If I interpret what IO'mn reading correctly, it means 'lid' or 'cover' independent of referring to small snacks. Words that basic are not often adopted from other languages without a pressing need (in moidern english, we have pots, casseroles, woks, saucepans, kettles, cauldrons and ollas - differentiation of shape and function, and snobism, make this viable - but they all have lids).
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