[ANSTHRLD] question about nobility

Tim McDaniel tmcd at panix.com
Thu Aug 4 10:43:55 PDT 2005

On Thu, 4 Aug 2005, nweders at mail.utexas.edu <heralds at ansteorra.org>
> They also thought about the term Grand Duke for awhile to someone
> who ruled five times. (Grand Duke Inman)

Another version I heard was "seven", and "Archduke" (Archduke Jade of
Starfall, Archduke Paul of Bellatrix -- "once and every other king" of
the West).

>        Is Baronet a period term?

<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baronet> says that the modern baronet
was invented in 1611.

> What rank would it be for?

At its origin, it was a source of revenue for the Crown -- he was
selling a heritable knighthood.  The article says

     The term baronet was first applied to the nobility who lost the
     right of individual summons to Parliament, and was used in this
     sense in a statute of Richard II.

     The revival of the Order can be dated to Sir Robert Cotton's
     discovery in the late sixteenth or early seventeenth century of
     William de la Pole's patent (issued in the 13th year of Edward
     III's reign), conferring upon him the dignity of a Baronet in
     return for a sum of money.

> I always liked Knights Banneret myself.  And I won't bring up the
> whole thought of peers in fealty should be Sir or Dame( regardless
> of type) and those out of fealty being Master or Mistress.

If you have evidence that period knights always swore fealty to the
king, except perhaps the Salisbury Oath to William the Conqueror, I
should like to see it.

I would rather say that it would be closer to period if all of what we
call peers were simply knights.  But that is not merely a dead horse,
but a greasy horse-shaped spot on the sidewalk, a flamewar from
several years ago.

Danyell de Linccolne
Tim McDaniel, tmcd at panix.com

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