SC - Edibility of lavender

[LrdRas@aol.com]

Decker, Terry D. wrote:
> 
> > I think perhaps they have it just a bit wrong, too.  Isn't corn flour oop?
> > Mordonna
> 
> Is the word corn being used specifically for maize or is it being used
> generally for grain?
> 
> Bear

I assume it's being used for grain. The Latin word is amulum, a cognate of the
ME amydoun, meaning wheat starch. What the British call cornflour is simply
any ultrafine starch, and they may have meant what Americans call cornstarch,
made from maize, or wheat starch. I think they translated it as referring to
whatever is more easily available, especially since the finished product won't
be significantly different even if maize starch is used.

Corn flour in the U.S.A., as far as I can tell, is ultrafine white corn meal
(maize ground into a fine flour, finer than most corn meal), which would be
OOP. But then what do a couple of British Latin scholars and amateur cooks
writing in 1957 care for whether they are in the SCA's period guidelines ;  ) ?

Adamantius
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