[Sca-cooks] 10th C. Cornish?

Phil Troy / G. Tacitus Adamantius adamantius.magister at verizon.net
Mon Oct 23 07:11:53 PDT 2006

On Oct 23, 2006, at 9:51 AM, grizly wrote:

> Sounds like you need a definition of terms.  What does someone  
> actually mean
> by 12th c. Italian when there was no Italy, but Papal States,  
> Independent
> states and some Empire lands?  Do they mean the peninsula we now  
> know as
> Italy, or the various lands controlled by the various powers around  
> that
> area in 1200's?  Think the Holy Roman Empire and the Byzantine  
> Empire and
> the various lands held by whoever had Sicily that week.

There might also be something in an early Islamic source that might  
be justifiable. I suspect that this is a question inspired by a  
pretty specific loophole, or at least it would be a loophole if it  
were the solution... if you follow.

>   Same with the Cornish . . . was there a Cornwall per se in the  
> 10th c. ?

As with Italy, the land, language and culture existed, if not  
necessarily political sovereignty. This is probably something the  
challenger doesn't expect to get a lot of response. Fried salt  
herring with mustard?

> Also get clarification as to what 12th centruey means . . .  
> Europeans and
> Americans use that differently, one is 100's and one is 1200's.

Here, I've got to disagree with you. I don't think most people that  
take history seriously to any extent would consider calling the  
1200's the 12th century. Let's not blame this on the Americans; it's  
just wrong wherever you encounter it. I sincerely _hope_ the person  
setting up contest criteria isn't using the term in that way.


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