[Sca-cooks] 10th C. Cornish?
Phil Troy / G. Tacitus Adamantius
adamantius.magister at verizon.net
Mon Oct 23 07:11:53 PDT 2006
On Oct 23, 2006, at 9:51 AM, grizly wrote:
> Sounds like you need a definition of terms. What does someone
> actually mean
> by 12th c. Italian when there was no Italy, but Papal States,
> states and some Empire lands? Do they mean the peninsula we now
> know as
> Italy, or the various lands controlled by the various powers around
> area in 1200's? Think the Holy Roman Empire and the Byzantine
> Empire and
> the various lands held by whoever had Sicily that week.
There might also be something in an early Islamic source that might
be justifiable. I suspect that this is a question inspired by a
pretty specific loophole, or at least it would be a loophole if it
were the solution... if you follow.
> Same with the Cornish . . . was there a Cornwall per se in the
> 10th c. ?
As with Italy, the land, language and culture existed, if not
necessarily political sovereignty. This is probably something the
challenger doesn't expect to get a lot of response. Fried salt
herring with mustard?
> Also get clarification as to what 12th centruey means . . .
> Europeans and
> Americans use that differently, one is 100's and one is 1200's.
Here, I've got to disagree with you. I don't think most people that
take history seriously to any extent would consider calling the
1200's the 12th century. Let's not blame this on the Americans; it's
just wrong wherever you encounter it. I sincerely _hope_ the person
setting up contest criteria isn't using the term in that way.
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