[Sca-cooks] "What Did the Romans Eat?"
Terry Decker
t.d.decker at att.net
Mon May 4 13:17:10 PDT 2015
The problem I was commenting on isn't about corn being a general term for
all cereals, but that it appears in a list of specific grains, thus making
the usage specific rather than general. Maize is not an ancient Roman crop,
appearing in Europe after 1492 CE. Corn can also be used to refer to the
most common grain of a local, but that requires some specialized knowledge
and an understanding of a general academic consensus, while the article is
written for non-academics.
I suspect that "corn" was cribbed from the annual "corn" (usually wheat or
barley) fleet from Egypt without consideration to the correct usage. It's a
mistake that a historian usually wouldn't make, so it makes me wonder how
well Ricketts did in his history studies at Birmingham.
Bear
-----Original Message-----
On Mon, May 4, 2015 at 12:56 AM, <JIMCHEVAL at aol.com> wrote:
> Yes, accurate in the main. "Corn" is simply the old English term for grain
> and is found all through nineteenth century texts and translations; it may
> still have that meaning, though I think the English today are very aware
> of
> its use to refer to what they call "maize".
>
I was brought up in Ireland referring to all cereals as corn (as opposed
to the more specific wheat, barley and oats). I think I saw maize for the
first time in the mid to late 90s, and it still doesn't really come to mind
if someone says "corn"; we generally know it as "sweetcorn".
Le meas,
Aodh
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