[Sca-cooks] Binge drinking
Radei Drchevich
radei at moscowmail.com
Tue Nov 22 11:06:33 PST 2005
I don't understand.
You are talking about daily consuption, but you are using YEARLY averages
as the justification. My Question is "Are there records that show that
many and/or most actually drank that much daily, or was it a dayoff binge
tupe as in many modern cansuptions?"
Yearly stats do not show a difference between binge or constant
consuption. Or am I wrong? If so, How?
joy
radei
----- Original Message -----
From: "Phil Troy / G. Tacitus Adamantius"
To: "Cooks within the SCA"
Subject: Re: [Sca-cooks] Binge drinking
Date: Mon, 21 Nov 2005 22:11:09 -0500
On Nov 21, 2005, at 9:43 PM, Radei Drchevich wrote:
> Statisrics are not a reliable measure of the actual intake. Do you
have
> sources that indicate actual daily consumprion?
At the risk of sounding flippant, what did you think the statistics
are based on? But seriously, there are probably multiple books
of household management, and recipe sources from specific
households that give a fair idea both of how much ale (for
example) was made in a given season, and how many people were in
the household, which type of ale was for which household members,
etc. It's not exact but we can get a fair idea.
Another possibility might be if there are records of allowances for
workers in various occupations (not sure if this data is actually
available, but I wouldn't be surprised), and I know the extent to
which records exist for post-period sailors' ration of ale and
rum, as well as wine.
> modern numbers for north america say the average person drinks 12
gallons
> of beer, 2 gallons of hard liquor, and 3 gallons of wine per year.
That
> is based on sales not actual person to person counts.
I'm sure the actual amount varies, but if you're positing the
amount of beer that is purchased and never drunk, I imagine it's
pretty insignificant. As for person-to-person counts, if you take
them and average them together, you get an average, no? Which is
what the stat claims to be... the only question is whether the
actual data as gathered is accurate, and I can only ask, why would
it be more likely to be inaccurate than accurate?
I mean, clearly there are people who drink huge amounts of beer,
wine, and spirits, and some who drink less, and some who drink
none, but these are still represented in the average sale numbers.
If medieval stats were gathered (based on annual sales) in the way
they are today, there'd be a big window for inaccuracy in
unrecorded, untaxed, or otherwise unregulated ale being made in
homes, but I don't think the data for period consumption is
gathered in the same way.
Adamantius
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Terry Decker"
> To: "Cooks within the SCA"
> Subject: Re: [Sca-cooks] Binge drinking
> Date: Mon, 21 Nov 2005 20:18:18 -0600
>
>
> I don't know about the "binge." That suggests extended gaps
> between bouts of intoxication. The general use of alcohol in
> period sounds more like the steady imbibing of the alcoholic. One
> of the studies I read calculates that the average person drank a
> gallon of ale or beer per day or slightly under a pint an hour and
> that it was a large part of the day's calorie count. Besides,
> everyone knows binging is unhealthy while such drinking was
> healthy, contributing to the "phlegmatic" personality.
>
> Bear
>
>> Binge-drinking an age-old problem
>> http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/health/4455912.stm
>>
>> Johnnae
>>
>>
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