[Sca-cooks] Sugar and slaves

[Suey]

jenne at practicality wrote:
"Slavery was uncommon, but not unknown.  In 1434, the Portuguese introduced
African slaves into Europe."
    Someone else insinuated slavery practically ended in the 12th 
Century. I suppose we did not have emancipations of slavery until the 
19th century in several European countries due to the fact court systems 
around here are a little slow. . .
    I give up! Ok Romans did not exist, Romans did not have slaves, they 
did not take them to their domains in their Empire nor did they find 
sugar in Egypt which they cultivated from the 3,000 B.C but then of 
course Egyptians did not exist either.  Romans introduced nothing to 
Europe. Arabs did not invade Spain in 711 nor did they dominate Spain or 
contribute anything to it for 700 years. As they did not have slaves 
they never thought of importing African slaves to cultivate sugarcane in 
Andalusia by the 9th Century nor did they export slaves to any European 
lord north of the Pyrenees. Sugar did not exist until the 12th and then 
only in Cyprus although it originated in China because the English did 
not import sugar from the Canaries or Madeira from the Spanish. New 
Guinea did not exist in 7,000 B.C. so sugar could not have originated 
there.  Elizabeth I and all English countrymen in her era had 48 lbs per 
person per year, sure thing. . .
    Yes, that seems to be what google is feeding you. Google is good for 
some things but in this area it displays such total ignorance that the 
subject is not worthy of debate considering   manuscripts, professional 
analogies and other reliable sources available.
Susan