[Sca-cooks] Spices in meals: a thought and a question

[James Prescott]

My apologies.

I was unclear in phrasing my original thought / question.

I meant the use of spices *in meals* in order to make the food
easier to eat while sitting in the alleged stench of the
mediaeval or renaissance room or hall.

If the air stinks (of humans and their smellier activities)
perhaps food is easier to eat if spiced to a greater or lesser
extent.


To exaggerate a bit for effect:

If you can smell your neighbours' armpits at 20 feet, can you only
stomach that lovely slice of venison if it is smothered in a very
aromatic and spicy sauce?

The pleasant scent of the dish, plus the assertive taste, could
both contribute to being able to bring it to the mouth and then
keep it down.


I would be wondering if this reason could be one (possibly minor)
contributing factor to the use of spices in meals.


Thorvald


At 1:05 PM +0000 5/2/09, t.d.decker at att.net wrote:
>  Okay, you have a proposition with some supporting opinion.  What is 
> your direct evidence?  I'm in Baltimore, far from my reference 
> material, but I'll try to provide a few thoughts on how to support 
> or refute your statements.
>
>  The entire proposition hinges on one question.  What percentage of 
> the spice trade was directed at these secondary uses?  If you can't 
> determine the extent of use, there is no way to say if the use was 
> significant, small but non-negligible, or negligible.